12th Bio - Botany One Word EM 2023

https://www.kalvikadal.in https://material.kalvikadal.
in
Ghlm; 1
One Mark Question and Answer
Chapter 1- Asexual and Sexual Reproduction in Plants

1. Fertilization in angiosperm is ______ type
a) Allogamy b) Double fertilization c) Pollination d) Fertilization
2. These two also decide the incompatibility and ompatibility of the pollen.______
a) Style and ovary b) Ovary and style c) Wet stigma and dry stigma d) None of the above.
3. The events from pollen deposition on the stigma to the entry of pollen tube into the ovule is called_______
a) Style __ Stigma interaction b) Ovule __ Ovary interaction
c) Pollen __ Pistil interaction d) Style__ Ovule interaction.
4. Recognition rejection protein reaction between surface of ____
a) The pollen __ Pistil b) The pollen__ Stigma c) The ovule___ Ovary d) The style___ Ovule.
5. When the pollen tube enters through chalaza _____
a) Porogamy b) Chalazogamy c) Mesogamy d) Micropyle.
6. The receptacles becomes fleshy and edible around the fruit enclosing the seed as in_____
a) Pyrus Malus b) Lilium c) Fritillaria d) Angiosperm.
7. When the pollen tube enters through Integument _____
a) Porogamy b) Chalazogamy c) Mesogamy d) Micropyle.
.in
8. The growth of the pollen tube towards the ovary . ovule and emryosac is due to the presence of_______
a) Chemotrophic substances b) Semichemotropic substances c) Phototrophic substances d) Autotrophic substances..
al
9. When the pollen tube enters through Micropyle _____
ad
a) Porogamy b) Chalazogamy c) Mesogamy d) Micropyle

10. The calyx cover the fruits in ______
k
a) Pyrus malus b) Physalis minima c) Lilium d) Solanum melogena

vi
11. After fertilization the perisperm develops from______

a) Sepals b) Funicle c) Ovule d) Nucellus.
al
12. Identify the endosperm seed .________.

.k
a) Bean b) Mango c) Cucurbits d) Wheat

13. The weight of Lodoicea maldivica seed is______
w
a) 60kg b) 6kg c) 600kg d) 0.6kg.

w
14. which of the following secretes amylase during germination?...

w
a) sphaerosome b) Aleurosome c) Chromosome d) Ribosome.

15. Reproduction which does not involve the union of male and female gametophyte is callled_______.
a) Apomixis b) Synagamy c) Amphimixis d) Autogamy.
16. PEN is refered as________.
a) Primary Entry of Nucleus. b) Primary Endo nutritive tissue.
c) Primary Endosperm Nucleus d) Post Entry of Nucleus.
17. The remnant of nucellar tissues in the seed is called_______.
a) Endosperm b) Antipodal cells c) Polar nuclei d) Perisperm
18. The embryo is small and consists of one shield shaped cotyledon know as______
a) Plumule b) Scutellum c) Micropyle d) Epithelium.
19. Find the wrong statement
a) Castor is endospermous b) Pea is non endospermous
c) Aleurone grain contains sphaerosomes d) Three types of endosperms are in gymnosperms
20. Assertion (A): parthenocarpy which arises due to mutation called genetic parthenocarpy .Reason (R): seedless
fruits are useful for the preparation of jams.
a) Both Assertion and reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion .
b) Both Assertion and reason are true and but reason is not correct explanation of Assertion .
c) Assertion is true ; Reason is false.
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
21. Find the Mis matching pair
a) Runner - centella b) Sucker - chrysanthemum c) Offset -bryophyllum d) Stolon -fragaria
22. T-shaped incision is made in-------- grafting
a) Bud b) Approach c) Tongue d) Crown
ciof;f jaq;fhjtDk;! cwq;f jaq;FgtDNk!! ntw;wpahsd;!!! A. Moses Packiaraj PGT Bot, Madurai 9994720207 1
Please send your Materials & Question Papers to kalvikadal.in@gmail.com (or) Whatsapp - 9385336929.
https://www.kalvikadal.in https://material.kalvikadal.in
23. Epiphyllous buds are in_______

a) chrysanthemum b) agave c) curcuma d) scilla
24. give the one example of Axillary bulbils
a) crysathemum b) diocorea c) bryophyllum d) murraya
25. Find the Matching pair
a) Rhizome - zinginber b) Corm - solanum c) Tuber- lilium d) Bulb- Tuber
26. Example of Grafting
a) Ixora b) Apple c) Moringa d) Hibiscus
27. Example of Layering
a) Jasminum b) Bougainvillea c) Mango d) Citrus
28. The gametic fusion is
a) Isogamy b) Anisogamy c) Oogamy d) All the above
29. In ______external fertilization takes place in whereas in _____ internal fertilization occurs
a) Higher plants and algae b) Algae and higher plants
c) Fungi and higher plants d) Algae and fungi
30. In Tamil literature the are denoted by different flowers ________
a) Six lands b) five lands c) seven lands d) four lands
31. First cell of the male gametophyte in angiosperm is________
a) Microspore b) Megaspore c) Primary endosperm nucleus d) pollen grain
32. Innermost layers of the anther wall is____
a) Endothelium b) Endothecium c) Epithelium d) Tapetum
33. Identify the mismatched pair regarding the anther wall
a) Epidermal layer ______protective in function b) Middle layer________persistent layer
c) Endothecium ________helps in dehiscence of anther. d) Tapetum________nutritive in function.
34. Its Dual in Origin
a) Endothecium b) epidermis c) Middle layer d) tapetum
.in
35. Assertion (A): sporopollenin preserves pollen in fossil deposits..Reason (R): sporopollenin is resistant to physical
and biological decomposition.
al
a) A is false R is true. b) A is true R is false
ad
c) both A and R are true d) both A and R are false

36. The word pistill refer to______
k
a)Stigma b)Style c) Ovary d)All the above.

vi
37. The ovules or megasporangia arise from____

al
a) Funicle b) Nucellus c) Hilum d) The placenta.

38. Ovules are also called_______
.k
a) Endothelium b) Nucellus c) Megasporangium d) Microsporangium

w
39. The point of attachment of funicle to the body of the ovules is known as_______
a) Nucellus b) Hilum c) Microsporangium d) Funiculus
w
40. The process of development of megaspore from a megaspore mother cell is called_____
w
a) Gametogenesis b) Megasporogenesis c) Microsporogenesis d) Sporogenesis

41. This is the common type of ovules found in dicots and monocots______
a) Anatropous b) Orthotropus c) Hemianatropous d) Campytotropus
42. Integument encloses the nucellus completely except the top where it is free and forms______
a) Raphe b) Funiculus c) Nucellus d) Micropyle
43. which of the following represent megagametophyte?
a) Embryo sac b) Ovule c) Nucellus d) Endosperm
44. Which one of the following is converted into endosperm after fertilization?
a) Funicle b) Egg c) Secondary nucleus d) Nucellus.
45. The process of transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower is called____.
a) Pollination b) Megasporogenesis c) Microsporogenesis d) Sporogenesis
46. The transfer of pollen on the stigma of the same flower is called
a) Allogamy b) Autogamy c) chasmogamy d) cleistogamy
47. The style is reflexed away from the stamens _________.
a) Citrus b) Gloriosa c) Hibiscus d) Helianthus.
48. choose the correct pair:
a) protogyny______clerodendron b) protandry_______ Helianthus
c) monoecious_____date palm d) dioecious_______coconut.
49. Tristyl occur in________.
a) primula b) gloriosa c) Lythrum d) clerodendrum.
50. choose the IN CORRECT pair:
a) Entomophily______salvia b) Anemophiliy_______maize
c) ornithophily______Sterlitzia. d) Myrmecophily______Adansonia
51. some plans of ok pollinated by snails_____

a) kigelial Africana b) adansonia digitata c) Araceae d) Both a and b.
52.The relationship between_______and ______ is an example for obligate mutualism.
a) Kigella and Africans b) Yucca and moth c) Adansonia and digtata d) None.
53. Choose the IN CORRECT pair:
a) Trap mechanism __ Aristolochia b) clip or translator mechanism __ Ascleiadaceae.
c) Piston mechanism __ Papilionaceae d) pit fall mechanism __ Salvia
Chapter 2 - Classical Genetics
1. Name the field of science that has changed the world more in the past 50 years
a) Genetics b) Technology c) Bio technology d) Genetics engineering.
2. The term genetics was first introduced to by__
a) Mendel b) Punnett c) Bateson d) Darwin.
3. Consider the following statements and choose the right options.i) Genetics is called as hereditary or genetic
Engineering.ii) Transmission of behavioural traits from parents to offspring
a) (i) is correct and (ii) is wrong. b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
c) ( i) is wrong and (ii) is correct d) Both (i) and (ii)are wrong.
4. choose the wrong pair:
a) The basic unit of heredity___ Biological information.
b) The characteristics are controlled by one or two maj or genes.___ Discontinuous variations..
c) Variations maybe due to the combining effects of environmental and genetic factors___ Quantitative inheritance.
d) Qualitative inheritance ___ Human height skin color.
5. which of the following is called as the Raw material for Evolution
a) Changes b) Variations c) Hybridization d) Vegetative characters.
.in
6. Choose the Correct pair
a) The first Geneticist_____ Baston.
al
b) Mendel's experimental in pea plants___ 1856 to 1883.
ad
c) The first systematic researcher in Genetics___ Mendel.

d) Mendel crossed and cataloged____24036 plants .
k
7. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are known to be located on how many different
vi
chromosomes?
al
a) seven b) six c) Four d) Five

8. "Gametes are never hybrid ".This is the statement of.
.k
a) Law of dominance b) Law of independent assortment

w
c) Law of segregation d) Law of random fertilization.

9. The gene responsible for the production of anthocyanin pigments.
w
a) Gene R b) Pigment A c) Gene A d) Gene C

w
10. Pick out the the wrong pair

a) Graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes_ Punnetts square.
b) The trait is not sex dependent_Test cross.
c) The dwarf trait disappeared in the F1 generation only to reappear in F2 generation_ Law of dominance.
d) Genotyping analysis_ Fork line method.
11. In F1 recessive trait and its factors masked only to reappear in F2 is.
a) 3/4 b) 1/2. c) 1/4. d) 2/4.
12. Name the scientist who use first the type of quantitative analysis in biological experiment .
a) Mendel b) Shetmak c) Punnett d) Correns.
13. The process in which the F1 hybrid is crossed with any one of the parental genotypes is.
a) Test cross b) Dihybrid cross c) Back cross d) Monohybrid cross.
14. In a cross between heterozygous tall (Tt) and homozygous tall( TT) There is
a progeny of 12.How many of them would be tall?
a)6. b) 8. c) 12 d) 9
15. The cross that helps to identify the heterozygosity of the hybrid
a) Recessive back cross b) Back cross c) Test cross d) Dominant backcross.
16. The plant height in the pea plant is controlled by the active form of__
a) Auxins b) Proteins c) Multiple genes d) Gibberellins
17. Assertion(A) : Test cross is a cross between an individual of unknown genotype with a homozygous
recessive.Reason(R) : Only the recessive characters of an individual can be identified.
a) Both Asseration and Reason are true and reason is correct explain of asseration.
b) Both Asseration and Reason for true but Reason is not correct explanation of Asseration.
c) Asseration is true; Reason is false.
d) Both Asseration and Reason or false.
18. The law of Dominance and the law of segregation give suitable explanation to mendel's.
a) Reciprocal cross b) Test cross c) Dihybrid cross d) Monohybrid cross
19. which of the following division is responsible for the genes that are located in different chromosomes assort
independently
a) Mitosis b) Meiosis c) amitosis d) Binary fission
20. Genetic variation takes place due to
a) Law of dominance b) Law of independent assortment
c) Law of segregation d) Law of recessiveness.
21. In pea plant the amount of DNA which turned normal (R) gene into recessive (rr) one
a) 0.08kb b) 0.80 kb c) 0.8 kb d) 0.008kb.
22. Assertion (A)in pea plant (Rr) genotypic plant has smooth structured rounded seedsReason (R) the gene is not
able to synthesis SBEI . so sucrose molecule stored water due to osmatic pressure the seeds become smooth and
rounded.
d) Both Asseration and Reason or false
23. which of the following laws are foundation for the revolutionized field of biology.
a) Law of segregation law of independent assortment b) Law of dominance law of recessiveness
c) Law of dominance law of segregation. d) Law of independent assortment law of recessiveness.
24. According to dihybrid test cross pick out the correct pair.
a) RrYy. _ 50 percentage b) rrYy _ 75 percentage
c) Rryy. _ 35 percentage d) rryy. _ 25 percentage
25. Mention the number of gametes and number of different zygotes which forms from a self fertilizing trihybrid
plants
a) 8and 64 b) 4and 64 c) 64 and 8. d) 6and 64.
.in
26. How many individuals are formed in the F2 ? if 4 types of gametes of a F1 dihybrids unite randomly in the
process of fertilization.
al
a) 64 b) 16. c) 14. d) 12.
ad
27. Pick out the correct one .

a) Intralocus interactions__ non allelic interaction.
k
b) Inter locus interaction __ allelic interaction.

vi
c) A single phenotype controlled by more than one set of genes___ Gene interaction.
al
d) Trihybrid cross demonstrates__ law of dominance and law of recessiveness.

28. Gene interaction concept was first explained by
.k
a) Mendal. b) punnet. c) Bateson d) Deveries.

w
29. Alleles themselves remind discrete and an altered is explained by

a) Monohybrid cross b) No blinding j eans c) Law of segregation d) Codominance
w
30. Name of the scientist who reported lethal gene in Snapdragon

w
a) E.Baur b) Correns c) punnet d) Arya

31. Which of the following has 1:2:1ratio in at their F2.
a) Monohybrid and incomplete dominance b) complementary gene and codominance
c) Lethal gene and codominance d) Supplementary gene and monohybrid cross
32. Who noticed pleiotropy while performing breeding experiment with peas
a) E.Baur b) Correns c) Mendel d) Bateson
33. Statement (A) in Mirablis jalapaThe German botanist Coral correns got pink coloured flower in F1
generation.Reason (R) here one allele is not completely dominant to another allele
34. Statement (A) two alleles of a gene at one locus interfere and suppress the phenotype expression is called
inhibitor geneStatement (B) in pursa Pastoris duplicate genes are seen.
a) (A) is correct and (B) is wrong. b) Both ( A) and( B) are correct.
c) ( A)is wrong and (B) is correct d) Both( A)and (B)are wrong.
35. Sickle cell anaemia is an example for
a) pleiotropy b) inhibitor gene. c) duplicate supplementary gene. d) Complementary genes
36. H.Nillson _ Ehle demonstrated polygenic inheritance in.
a) Cotyledons of wheat b) kernels of wheat c) seed shape of wheat d) radicle. of wheat.
37. The loci that was studied by Nillson _ Ehle
a) Linkage b) independent assortment c) gene segregation d) complementary genes
38. The human skin colour is controlled by how many pairs of genes
a) 3 b) 6 c) 15 d) 20.
39. In each crossof the F1 plant reveals the character of.

a) Male b) female c) mixed character d) bisexual character.
40. Assertion (A) Certain traits are governed by the mitochondrial genesReason (R) genes located in nuclear
chromosomes are controlled this characters..
41. Choose the correct pair..
a) Inheritance is not through nuclear gene ___atavism b) chloroplast inheritance __female produce cytoplasm.
c) Normal cytoplasmic male___ S fertile. d) Aberrant and cytoplasmic male_ N sterility..
42. ln F2 generation plants have wide range of colour variation is due to
a) Genes are segregating and linkage b) Recombination and genes are segregating
c) Dominant epistasis and genes are segregating d) recombination and codominance.
43. Assertion(A) ancestral trait reappears after having been lost through revolutionary changes in the previous
generation is called atavism. Reason(R) because the evolution traits that have disappeared phenotypically do
not necessarily disappear from an organism's DNA .
Chapter 3 - Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
1. The term mutation was introduced by

.in
a) Muller b) Hugo de Vries c) C. Auerback d) L J Stadler
2. Was the first to find out physical mutagen in Drosophila
al
ad
3. Chemical mutagenesis was first reported by

k
4. ............. reported induced mutations in plants by using X rays and gamma rays
vi

5....................... is a mutant variety of wheat developed by Dr. M.S.Swaminathan
al
a) Castor Aruna b) Sharbati Sonora c) Triticum durum d) Secale cereale

.k
6. The maturity period of Castor Aruna is

a) 270 days b) 170 days c) 120 days d) 220 days
w
7. Find the wrong pair

w
a) Trisomy - (2n+1) b) Tetrasomy - (2n+2) c) Pentasomy - (2n+3) d) Double Tetrasomy (2n+1+1)

w

a) Monosomy - (2n-1) b) Double Monosomy - (2n-1+1) c) Nullisomy - (2n-2) d) Double Nullisomy - (2n-2-2)
9. When any of the three allelic forms of a gene occupy the same locus in a given pair of homologous chromosome is called-
a) Allelic gene. b) Multiple alleles c) Dominant alleles. d) Recessive alleles.
10. Multiple alleles are always responsible for___
a) Hidden characters. b) Dominant characters. c) Same characters. d) Different characters
11. East( 1925)observed Multiple alleles in__.
a) Lathyrus odoratus. b) Drosophila. c) Nicotiana d) Zea mays.
12. Assertion ( A): zea mays is an example for Monoecious. Reasons (R): Because male and female flowers are
present on the same plant.
a) Both Asseration and Reason are true and reason is correct explain of asseration
13. choose the wrong Statement
a) zea mays the staminate florets develops from shoot apical meristem called tassel.
b) The lateral inflorescence which develop pistillate florets from axillary bud is called ray.
c) The wild type alleles of a series exhibit recessive characters.
d) The mutant type of alleles will influence an intermediate phenotypic effects.
14. Who coined the word 'crossing over
a) Morgan b) Patson c) Mental d) Bunnett.
15. At what stage of prophase 1 in the intimate paring between two homologous chromosome initiated?
a) Leptotene b) Pachytene c) Diplotene d) Zygotene
16. Synaptonemal complex formation is absent in___

a) Male drosophila b) Female drosophila c) Yeast. d) Bacteria.
17. At what stage does crossing over occur?.
a) Leptotene b) Pachytene c) Diplotene d) Zygotene.
18. Who developed the concept of gene mapping?
a) Moragan. b) C.E.Allen. c) Hugo de vries. d) Alfred sturtevant
19. How many map units separate two alleles A and B .if the recombination frequency is is 0.09?
a) 900cm b) 90cm c) 9cm d) 0.9cm
20. Mechanism of crossing over involves the following stages select the correct sequence.
a) Tetardstage > synapsis > bivalent stage > crossing over.
b) Synapsis > Tetard > crossing over > Terminalization .
c) Terminalization > Tetard > Bivalent > cross over.
d) Cross over > Bivalent > Tetard > Termalization.
21. One map unit in a genetic map is called__
a) Centi Morgan b) Centimetre c) Mili metre d) Metre.
22. The tendency of genes to stay together during separation of chromosomes is called
a) Coupling. b) Synapsis c) Linkage d) Repulsion
23. Pick out the correct statement
a) Syntenic geans are sufficient ly far apart on the same chromosome.
b) Lathyrus odoratus is called as wild pea.
c) According to mendel's law when the genes are present in the same chromosome they assert independently
d) Closely located genes show weak linkage.
24. If the recombination frequency value is more than 50 %the two genes show
a) Linked b) Unlinked c) Translocation d) Inverted.
25. Assertion (A) The linked genes exhibit some crossing over.Reason( R) Because the linked genes located very close
and on the same chromosome.
.in
al
ad

26. Mucor and Maize having the number of linkage group respectively.
k
a) 10 and 7 b) 10.and 2 c) 2 and10 d) 2 and 7

vi
27. Complete linkage has been reported in

al
a) Female drosophila b) Male drosophila c) Male Maize d) Female maize

28. Find out the correct pair
.k
a) Couplings _ Trans configuration. b) Repulsion. _ Cis-configuration.

w
c) Linkage _ Each induce new genecombination. d) Crossing over _Tt leads to separation of linked.
29. Which of the two processes that have opposite effects
w
a) Linkage and repulsion. b) Linkage and crossing over.

w
c) Crossing over and coupling. d) Coupling and linkage.

30. Who independently proposed the chromosome therory of inheritance?.
a) Sutton and Boveri b) De Vries and Tschermak. c) Mendel and Cottens d) Roux and Boveri.
31. During which phase do the homologous segregate.
a) Metaphase II b) Telophase II c) Anaphase I d) Prophase I
32. ___was the frist to suggest occurrence of distinct pairs of chromosomes.
a) Sutton. b) Boveri c) Montgomery. d) Morgan...
33. The number of chromosomes in the Adders tongue fern is ___.
a) 8 b) 34 c) 1262 d) 48
34. Roux postulated that __ of a cell are responsible for transferring heredity
a) Chromosomes b) allele. c) chromophore. d) gamete.
35. Pick out the correct one.Statement (A):Each chromosomes carries specific determiners or
mendelian factors which for now termed as genes.Statement (B):Gametic cells of organisms are derived from
the zygote by repeated mitosis cell division.
a) (A)is correct and (B) is wrong. b) Both ( A) and( B) are correct.
c) ( A)is wrong and (B) is correct d) Both( A)and (B)are wrong.
36. Assertion (A):All somatic cells of orangisms carry the same genetic compliment.Reason (R) : chromosomes retain
their structural uniqueness and individuality throughout the life cycle of organism.
37. Thomas Morgan confirmed chromosomal theory of inheritance by studying on
a) Pea plant b) Maize plant c) Drosophila melanogaster. d) Horsetail Plant.
38. The number of chromosomes is diploid cells of drosophila is

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12
Chapter 4 - Principles and Processes of Biotechnology

1. Study of body's defence mechanisms is
a) Immunology b) Microbiology c) Molecular Biology d) Genetics
2. Study of microorganisms and their effect on humans is
a) Immunology b) Microbiology c) Molecular Biology d) Genetics
3. Conversion of raw materials into valuable forms with th application of physical and life science
a) Nano Biotechnology b) Biomedical Engineering c) Tissue Engineering d) Chemical Engineering
4..........................uses first viral vaccine to inoculate a child from smallpox
a) Antoine Lavoisier b) Ernst Hoppe c) Edward Jenner d) Louis Pasteur
5. Who is identified the role of microorganisms in fermentation
a) Antoine Lavoisier b) Ernst Hoppe c) Edward Jenner d) Louis Pasteur
6. The term biotechnology was coined by
a) Alexander Fleming b) Karl Ereky c) Edward Tatum d) Nathans
7. Discovery of Penicillin by
a) Alexander Fleming b) Karl Ereky c) Edward Tatum d) Nathans
8. Discovery of double helix structure of DNA in
a) 1944 b) 1953 c) 1973 d) 1976
9. Discovery of Restriction enzymes in
a) 1919 b) 1928 c) 1972 d) 1976
10. In the year ........................ First chromosomes of yeast issequenced
a) 1978 b) 1983 c) 1987 d) 1992
.in
11. GFP refers to the protein first isolated from thejellyfish Aequorea victoria Narcissus
a) pseudonarcissus b) Aequorea victoria c) Medicago sativa d) Erwinia auredorora
al
12. Example of Biopharming
a) Golden rice b) wild-type rice c) Dhara Mustard d) Brinjal
ad
13. ........ is the process that increases the oxygen or air flow to accelerate the degradation of environmental pollutants
a) Bioventing b) Bioleaching c) Bioaugmentation d) Composting
k
14........................is the use of microorganisms in solution to recover metal pollutants from contaminated sites
vi

al
15............................. is the addition of selected microbes to speed up degradation process

.k

16................................. is the process by which the solid waste is composted by the use of microbes into manure
w

w
17. Algal fuels are analternative to commonly known biofuel sources obtained from corn
a) Brinjal b) Tomato c) corn d) Golden rice
w
18.................................. normally used to produce algal biofuel

a) Chlamydomonas reinhardtii b) Botryococcus brauniiis c) Bacillus thuringiensis d) Narcissus pseudonarcissus
19. Biological hydrogen production by .................................
a) Chlamydomonas reinhardtii b) Botryococcus brauniiis c) Bacillus thuringiensis d) Narcissus pseudonarcissus
20. Production of secondary metabolite is ....................
a) biofuel b) Single cell protein c) biofertilizers d) Biochip
21. Basta is a .................................
a) Insect Resistance b) Herbicide Tolerant c) Virus Resistance d) Bacteria Resistance
22. PPT (L-phosphinothricin) was isolated from
a) Bacillus thuringiensis b) Narcissus pseudonarcissus c) Medicago sativa d) Erwinia auredorora
23. ‘crt-1’ gene from the soil bacterium
24. ‘lyc’(lycopene cyclase) gene from ......................... endosperm.
a) Brinjal b) wild-type rice c) Tomato d) Dhara Mustard
25. ‘psy’ (phytoene synthase) from daffodil plant ...............
26. crystal protein gene ( Cry1Ac ) from the soil bacterium ...................
27. Transgenic brinjal created by inserting a.........................
a) Cry 1Ac b) PPT c) DMH -11 d) psy
28. Transgenic mustard created by inserting a..................................................
a) Cry 1Ac b) PPT c) DMH -11 d) psy
29. Find the wrong statement about Disadvantages of Bt cotton

a) Cost of Bt cotton seed is high b) Effectiveness up to 120 days after that efficiency is reduced
c) Affects pollinating insects and thus yield d) Potential reduction in the cost of cultivation
30. In GM Food is helped .................. reduction of pesticide usage
a) 50% b) 60% c) 70% d) 80%
31. Filter Paper technique was introduced by Southern in
a) 1973 b) 1974 c) 1975 d) 1976
32. In Southern blotting techniques used for Separation of ................
a) DNA b) RNA c) Chromosome d) Proteins
33. In Northern blotting techniques used for Separation of ................

34. In Western blotting techniques used for Separation of ................
35................................ Membrane used in Western blotting
a) Nitrocellulose b) Amino benzyloxymethyl c) Chromatography Paper d) HEPA
36................................ Membrane used in Northern blotting
a) Nitrocellulose b) Amino benzyloxymethyl c) Chromatography Paper d) HEPA
37. Gene of interest is
a) target DNA b) Insert DNA c) foreign DNA d) exogenous DNA
38. RNA interference is
a) RNAi b) siRNA c) RISC d) ssRNA
39. short interferingRNA is
40. RNA-induced silencing complex is
.in
41. Consider the following statements:- I) In the direct gene transfer methods, the foreign gene of interest is
delivered into the host plant without the help of a vector. 2) Microinjection is a direct gene transfer method
al
a) (1) is Correct, (2) is Wrong b) (1)& (2) Correct, c) (1) & (2) Wrong d) (1) is Wrong, (2) is Correct
ad
42. Find the wrong Pair

a) Chemical mediated gene transfer - polyethylene glycol
k
b) Microinj ection - fine tipped glass needle

vi
c) Electroporation Methods of Gene Transfer - which makes transient pores in the plasma membrane
al
d) Liposome mediated method of Gene Transfer - gene gun

43. Consider the following statements:- (1) Liposome mediated method of Gene Transfer is In the direct gene
.k
transfer method. (2) Certain chemicals like polyethylene glycol (PEG) and dextran sulphate induce DNA uptake
w
into plant protoplasts in Liposome mediated method

a) (1) is Correct, (2) is Wrong b) (1)& (2) Correct, c) (1) & (2) Wrong d) (1) is Wrong, (2) is Correct
w
45............................ has the natural ability to transfer T-DNA region of its plasmid into plant genome
w
a) Arabidopsis thaliana b) Escherichia coli. c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens d) Cyanobacteria

46 ........from Agrobacterium tumefaciens has been used in indirect mediated gene transfer
a) RNA b) Gene Gun c) Plasma membrane d) Ti-plasmid
47. In the direct gene transfer method of Biolistics using a .............................
a) polyethylene glycol b) glass needle c) micro projectile gun d) artificial phospholipid vesicles
48. Liposome mediated method of Gene Transfer techniqueis advantageous because the liposome protects the
introduced DNA from being damaged by the acidic pH and ............................ enzymes
a) protease b) DNA Ligase c) Exonuclease III d) Alkaline Phosphatase
49. Agarose is convenient for separating DNA fragments ranging in size from a few hundred to about ...... base pairs
a) 200 b) 2000 c) 20000 d) 200000
50.Use of ELISA in plant pathology especially for weeding out ................. infected plants from large scale planting
is well known
a) Bacteria b) virus c) Fungi d) Insects
51. Ti plasmid is found in ..........................................
a) Arabidopsis thaliana b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens c) Escherichia coli. d) Cyanobacteria
52. Gene walking involves the complete sequencing of large more than .................. stretches of DNA
a) 1kb b) 2kb c) 3kb d) 4kb
53. Example of Expression vectors
a) his3 b) pUC 19 c) par A d) trp 1
54. One more important feature of E.coli to be preferred as a host cell is that under optimal growing conditions the
cells divide every .................................
a) 5 minutes b) 10 minutes c) 20 minutes d) 22 minutes
55. Since the DNA is a ......................... molecule,it cannot pass through cell membranes
a) Carbohydrate b) Lipid c) hydrophobic d) hydrophilic
56. DNA cannot pass through cell membranes, In order to force bacteria to take up the plasmid,This is done by
treating them with a specific concentration of a divalent cation such as ......................
a) calcium b) Carbon c) oxygen d) ozone
57. The two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in .............................
a) Bacillus amyloliquefaciens b) Haemophilus aegyptus c) Escherichia coli d) Haemophilus influenza
58. Example of Exonucleases is
a) Hind II b) Bal 31 c) EcoRI d) Pvul
59. Example of Endonucleases is
a) Exonuclease III b) Bal 31 c) Bal 33 d) BamHI
60. Only type II enzyme is preferred for use in recombinant DNA technology as they recogniseand cut DNA within
a specific sequence typically consisting of
a) 2-6 bp b) 3-8 bp c) 4-8 bp d) 3-6 bp
61........................................... is a DNA modifying enzymes
a) DNA Ligase b) Alkaline Phosphatase c) Exonuclease III d) TaqI
62......................................... enzyme joins the sugar and phosphate molecules of double stranded DNA (dsDNA) with
5’-PO4 and a 3’-OH in an Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) dependent reaction.
a) DNA Ligase b) Alkaline Phosphatase c) Exonuclease III d) TaqI
63. Today more than 900 restriction enzymes that have been isolated from over ....................... strains of bacteria with
different recognition sequences.
a) 230 b) 250 c) 260 d) 280
64. EcoRI is from Escherichia (E) coli (co), ...................... (R) and first endonuclease (I) to be discovered.
a) strain RY 10 b) strain RY 11 c) strain RY 12 d) strain RY 13
65. The study of fermentation, its practical uses is called ....................
a) Immunology b) zymology c) Molecular Biology d) Microbiology
66. Example of Primary metabolites
a) Penicillin b) Streptomycin c) acetic acid d) alkaloids
.in
67. Example of Secondary metabolites
a) Amphotericin-B b) Ethanol c) citric acid d) lactic
al
68. Amylase is example of ....................................
ad
a) Primary metabolites b) Secondary metabolites c) Microbial enzymes d) Single Cell Protein

69. In Bioconversion ethanol convert to .................
k
a) acetic acid b) acetone c) sorbitol d) sorbose

vi
70. Cellulomonas is a .............................

al
a) Algae b) Bacteria c) Fungi d) Yeast

71. Candida utilis is a .............................
.k

w
72. Spirulina is a .............................

w
73. 250 gof Methylophilus methylotrophus ,as its high rateof biomass production and growth, can be expected to
w
produce 25 tonnes of .........................

a) vitamin b) protein c) fat d) Carbohydrate
Chapter 5 - Plant Tissue Culture

1. Find wrong statement about (IPR)
a) In biotechnology, the transformed microorganisms and plants and technologies for the production of commercial
products are exclusively the property of the discoverer
b) The discoverer has the full rights on his property. It should be neglected by the others without legal permission.
c) The right of discoverer must be protected and it does by certain laws framed by a country.
d) The IPR is protected by different ways like patents, copyrights, trade secrets and trademarks, designs and geographical
indications
2. Find the wrong statement about Patents
a) It is a special right to the discoverer/inventor that has been granted by the government through legislation for trading
new articles
b) A patent is a personal property which can't be licensed or sold by the person or organisation just like any
other property
c) Patent terms give the inventor the rights to exclude others from making, using or selling his invention
d) It is difficult to keep secret certain inventions and therefore, guidance should be obtained from a qualified patent
attorney.
3. The grant is filled at the............ office which is not published It is a signed document,actually the agreement that
grants patent right to the inventor
a) Incom tax b) Municipal c) Collector d) Patent
4. "Pathogenicity of living organisms and viruses"find wrong example

a) Infect humans b) Animals c) Plants d) Micro Organisms
5. Find the wrong statement about Potential risks and consideration for safety aspects
a) Toxicity of allergy associated with microbial production
b) Decreasing number of antibiotic resistant pathogenic microorganisms
c) Safety aspects associated with contamination, infection or mutation of process strains.
d) Safety aspects associated with the industrial use of microorganisms containing in vitro recombinants
6. "Bio safety guidelines are being implemented by"find the wrong department
a) The Institutional Bio-safety Committees b) Ethical, Legal and Social Implications
c) The Review Committee on Genetic Manipulation d) The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
7. ..............was established as an apexbody to accord approval of activities involving large scale use of hazardous
microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production
a) The Institutional Bio-safety Committees b) Ethical, Legal and Social Implications
c) The Review Committee on Genetic Manipulation d) The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
8. The Ethical, Legal, and Social Implications(ELSI) program was founded in ....................
a) 1988 b) 1989 c) 1990 d) 1991
9. The concept Totipotency was proposed by
a) P.R.White b) Gott lieb Haberlandt c) Hildbrandt d) Carlson
10. ............................... developed root cultures, used Knop’s solutionalong with three vitamins like
pyridoxine,thiamine and nicotinic acid
a) P.R.White b) Gott lieb Haberlandt c) Hildbrandt d) Carlson
11. Who was used coconut water in plant tissue culture work
a) Murashige b) Kanta c) Chilton d) F.C. Steward
12. Produced transformed tobacco plants fromsingle cell transformation and gene insertion
a) Murashige b) Kanta c) Chilton d) F.C. Steward
13. The process of biochemical and structural changes by which cells become specialized inform and function
.in
a) Totipotency b) Differentiation c) Redifferentiation d) Dedifferentiation
14. The (HEPA) filter is used in ...........
al
a) autoclave b) pH meter c) laminar air-flow bench d) ovens
ad
15. In culture facility growing the explant inoculated into culture tubes at
a) 22-28° C b) 22-30° C c) 28-30° C d) 28-32° C
k
16. In culture facility growing the explant inoculated with illumination of light
vi
a) 2200 lux b) 2300 lux c) 2400 lux d) 2500 lux

al
17. Growing the explant inoculated with a photoperiod of

a) 8-16 hours b) 8-12 hours c) 6-12 hours d) 8-14 hours
.k
18. Growing the explant inoculated with a relative humidity of

w
a) 40% b) 50% c) 60% d) 70%

19. Autoclaving at
w
a) 15 psi (120°C) for 15 to 30 minutes b) 15 psi (120°C) for 20 to 30 minutes

w
c) 15 psi (121°C) for 15 to 30 minutes d) 21 psi (121°C) for 15 to 30 minutes

20. Surface sterilization agents like ................ mercuric chloride, 70% ethanol under aseptic condition inside the
Laminar Air Flow Chamber
a) 1% b) 0.1% c) 0.01% d) 0.001%
21. Gamborg.et.al using the .......................... medium
a) MS nutrient medium b) B5 medium c) White medium d) Nitsch’s medium
22. The pH of medium is normally adj usted between ............ for the best result
a) 2.6 to 3.0 b) 3.6 to 4.0 c) 4.6 to 5.0 d) 5.6 to 6.0
23. Protoplast Fusion done through the ...........................
a) Polyethylene Glycol b) Nicotinic acid c) Pyridoxin d) Thaiamine
24. In Protoplast culture the cell wall formation occurs within ...................
a) 0-24 hours b) 24-48 hours c) 48-72 hours d) 72-96 hours
25. Biosynthesis and isolation of indole alkaloids from ...................plant cell culture
a) Capsicum annum b) Papaver sominiferum c) Catharanthus roseus d) Digitalis purpuria
26. Secondary metabolites Digoxin is produce by .............
a) Catharanthus roseus b) Digitalis purpuria c) Papaver sominiferum d) Capsicum annum
27. Find the correct pair
a) Digoxin -- Analgesic b) Codeine -- Cardiac tonic c) Capsaicin -- Antimalarial d) Vincristine -- Anticarcinogenic
28. Find the incorrect pair
a) Digoxin ------- Cinchona officinalis b) Codeine ------ Papaver sominiferum
c) Capsaicin ----- Capsicum annum d) Vincristine ----- Catharanthus roseus
29. ............................can be be used for the production of synthetic seeds
a) Callus b) Somatic embryoids c) embryoids d) Plant lets
30.Synthetic seeds are produced by encapsulation of embryoids in.............................

a) Agarose gel b) Benzylaminopurine c) Indol Acetic Acid d) NaCl
31. In banana micropropagation induction of shoots with in ............................
a) 160 days b) 162 days c) 165 days d) 168 days
32. In vitro icropropagation of banana suckers surface sterilized with 1% NaoCl for ........................
a) 30 seconds b) 30 minutes c) 30 hours d) 30 days
33. Find the wrong statement
a) Millions of artificial seeds can be produced at any time at low cost
b) It is easy to test the genotype of plants.
c) The period of dormancy of artificial seeds is increase
d) Artificial seeds produce identical plants
34. Cryopreservation by cooling to very low temperature of ........................
a) –190°C b) –196°C c) –197°C d) –198°C
35. In Cryopreservation we using ........................
a) Nitrogen b) oxygen c) liquid nitrogen d) Benzylaminopurine
36. ................ induce shoot and root formation
a) cytokinins b) gibberellins c) ethylene d) abscisic acid
Chapter 6 - Principles of Ecology

1. Choose the wrong Pair
a) Soil moisture - Plants absorbs rain water and moisture direct ly from the air
b) Soil water - Capillary water held between pore spaces of soil particles and angles between them is the most important
form of water available to the plants
c) Soil reactions - Soil may be acidic or alkaline or neutral in their reaction
.in
d) Residual soils - These are transported by various agencies
2. Choose the wrong Pair
al
a) Soil nutrients - to provide all essential plant nutrients such as minerals and organic nutrients in the form of gas
ad
b) Soil temperature - Low temperature reduces use of water and solute absorption by roots
c) Soil atmosphere - The spaces left between soil particles are called pore spaces which contains oxygen and carbon-di-oxide
k
d) Soil organisms - bacteria, fungi, algae, protozoans, nematodes, insects, earthworms

vi
3. It consists of top soil with humus, living creatures and in-organic minerals
a) Organic horizon b) Leached horizon c) Accumulation horizon d) Partially weathered horizon
al
4. Choose the Correct pair

.k
a) Clayey soil - 85% sand and 15%clay b) Silt soil - 60% silt and 40%sand
c) Loamy soil -70% sand and 30% clay d) Sandy soil - 50% clay and 50% silt
w
5. Plants living in calcium rich alkaline soil are called

w
a) Halophytes b) Lithophytes c) Calciphytes d) Cryptophytes

6. The transition zone between two ecosystems is named
w
a) Biotope b) Niche c) Ecotone d) Edge effect

7............................. Is example of Edge
a) Lion b) Tiger c) Bat d) Owl
8. In evening (5 – 6 pm) blooming plant name
a) Poppy b) Primrose c) Chicory d) dog rose
9. The visible part of light wavelength (600 – 700 nm) is ……………… in Colour
a) Violet b) Blue c) green d) Red
10. In deep sea hydrothermal vents where average temperature exceed ……….. degree Celsius
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 400
11. Water covers more than ……………...of the earth’s surface.
a) 68% b) 65% c) 70% d) 69%
12. The composition of gases in atmosphere is
a) Nitrogen -78% , Oxygen -21%, Carbon-di-oxide -0.03%, Argon and other gases - 0.93%.
b) Nitrogen -77% , Oxygen -20%, Carbon-di-oxide -1.03%, Argon and other gases - 1.93%.
c) Nitrogen -75% , Oxygen -21%, Carbon-di-oxide -3.03%, Argon and other gases - 0.93%.
d) Nitrogen -78% , Oxygen -20%, Carbon-di-oxide -1.03%, Argon and other gases - 0.93%.
13. Which burns the forest canopy
a) Ground fire b) Surface fire c) Crown fire d) None
14. ……………...tolerate cadmium by binding it to their proteins
a) Mango b) Eichhornia c) tomato d) Soyabean
15. Who is a Father of Indian Ecology
a) B.P. Pal b) Swaminathan c) Misra d) Ramiah
16. The term “ecology” was proposed by

a) Ernest Haeckel b) Eugene P. Odum c) Roswell Hill Johnson d) Reiter
17. Who is Father of Ecology
a) Ernest Haeckel b) Eugene P. Odum c) Alexander von Humbolt d) Reiter
18. Who is Father of Morden Ecology
a) Ernest Haeckel b) Eugene P. Odum c) Alexander von Humbolt d) Roswell Hill Johnson
19. The term ecological niche was coined by ………………..
a) Ernest Haeckel b) Eugene P. Odum c) Alexander von Humbolt d) Roswell Hill Johnson
20. The environment of any community is called
a) Biotope b) Bio-diversity c) Ecosystem d) Niche
21. Orchids is a ………………………..
a) Epiphytic b) Xerophytes c) Hydrophytes d) mesophytes
22. Find out the wrong statement
a) A specific physical space occupied by an organism b) Same habitat may be shared by many organisms
c) A functional space occupied by an organism in the same d) Habitat specificity is exhibited by organism
23. Poppy is example of …………...
a) Minute seeds b) Wings Shaped Seeds c) Censor mechanisms having seed d) Feathery Appendages Seeds
24. Example of Wings Shape Seeds ………………….
a) Poppy b) Asclepias c) Gyrocarpus d) Orchids
25. Presence of fibrous mesocarp and light pericarp ……………..
a) Nelumbo b) Coconut c) Nymphaea d)Heritiera littoralis
26. Some fruits have sticky glandular hairs by which they adhere to the fur of grazing animals
a) Boerhaavia b) Diplocyclos c) Cordia d) Alangium
27. Certain long pods explode with a loud noise like cracker, scattering the seeds in all directions
a) Hura b) Ruellia c) Bauhinia vahlii d) Ecballium elatrium
28. Seed ball is an ancient ………….technique
.in
a) Chinese b) Indians c) Japanese d) Srilankans
29. Choose the wrong one
al
a) April 22 - Earth day b) May 22 - World bio diversity day
ad
c) June 05 - World environment day d) July 07 - International Ozone day

30. Find The Wrong Pair
k
a) Free floating hydrophyte - Eichhornia b) Rooted floating hydrophyte - Marsilea

vi
c) Submerged floating hydrophyte - Pistia d) Rooted - sumerged hydrophyte - Vallisneria

al
31. Example of Rooted emergent hydrophyte -Heterophylly

a) Ceratophyllum b) Ranunculus c) Utricularia d) Hydrilla
.k
32. Example of Hygrophytes

w
a) (i)Habenaria b) (ii)Sagittaria c) (i) & (ii) Correct d) None

33. The root caps are replaced by ……………..in Eichhornia
w
a) Velamen b) Root pockets c) Root Nodules d) Root Tip

w
34. Example of Non succulents

a) Opuntia b) Aloe c) Bryophyllum d) Zizyphus
35. Find the Wrong statement
a) Cuticle in aerial parts are moderately developed.
b) Epidermis is well developed and stomata are generally present on only upper epidermis.
c) Mesophyll is well differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.
d) Vascular and mechanical tissues are fairly developed and well differentiated.
36. A special type of negatively geotropic roots called
a) Clinging roots b) Pneumatophores c) Aerial roots d) Velamen
37. Example of breathing roots
a) Avicennia b) Vanda c) Money plant d) Mukia
38. Example of trichophyllous plants
a) Vanda b) Money plant c) Mukia d)Hanging Mosses
39. The interactions among living organisms such as plants and animals are called
a) Climatic factor b) Topographic factors c) Abiotic factors d) biotic factors
40. ……………………… Bacterium forms nodules in the roots of leguminous plants and lives symbiotically
a) Cyanobacteria b) Clostridium c) Rhizobium d) Azotobacter
41. Anabaena present in coralloid roots of ………………….
a) Azolla b) Cycas c) Anthoceros d) Fig tree
a) Cuscuta--Parasitism b) Drosera --Commensalism c) Orchids--Mutualism d) Lichen--------Predation
43. Tillandsia grows on the bark of ………...trees
a) Cycas b) Pine c) Fig d) Palm
44. Find out wrong pair

a) Calotropis - Thorns b) Tobacco - nicotine c) Coffee - caffeine d) Cinchona -quinine
45. ……………...the total root parasites found on higher plants
a) Cuscuta b) Duranta c) Acacia d) Balanophora
46. Partial stem parasite is ……………………………..
a) Santalum b) Viscum c) Orobanche d) Balanophora
47. ………………..an orchid, the flower looks like a female insect to attract the male insect
a) Ophrys b) Juglans c) Alfalfa d) Vanda
Chapter 7 - Ecosystem
1. Find out the wrong statement about Primary succession

a) Developing in an barren area b) Initiated due to a biological or any other external factors
c) It starts where soil covers is already present d) Pioneer species come from outside environment
2. Find out the wrong statement about Secondary succession
a) Developing in disturbed area b) Starts due to external factors only
c) Pioneer species develop from existing environment d) It takes more time to complete
3. ………………….. occurs in the medium that is rich in organic substances.
a) Autotrophic Succession b) Heterotrophic Succession c) Allogenic Succession d) Autogenic Succession
a) Primary Succession - Development of plant community on disturbed area
b) Secondary Succession - Development of plant community on barren area.
c) Autogenic Succession - Controlled by biotic components of ecosystem.
d) Allogenic Succession - It occurs in the medium that is rich in inorganic substances
5. Find Incorrect pair
.in
a) Mesosere - (Succession starts in regions where moisture condition is adequate)
b) Hydrosere - (Initiating in saline water)
al
c) Lithosere- (Initiating on a barren rock)
ad
d) Psammosere- (Initiating on a sand)

6. Examples of Phytoplankton stage
k
a) Typha, Phragmites, Sagittaria and Scirpus b) Nelumbo, Nymphaea and Trapa

vi
c) Chara, Utricularia, Vallisneria and Hydrilla d) blue green algae, green algae, diatoms, bacteria,
al
7. Examples of Submerged free floating stage

a) Typha, Phragmites, Sagittaria and Scirpus b) Nelumbo, Nymphaea and Trapa
.k
c) Chara, Utricularia, Vallisneria and Hydrilla d) blue green algae, green algae, diatoms, bacteria,
w
8. Example of Forest stage

a) Cinnamomum b) Salix c) Cornus d) Populus
w
9. …………..and his colleagues estimated the value of global ecosystem services based on various parameters
w
a) Lindeman b) V. V. Dokuchaev c) G.F. Morozov d)Robert Constanza

a) Provisoning services - Food, fiberand fuel b) Provisoning services - Ecotourism
c) Provisoning services - Genetic resources d) Provisoning services - Bio-chemicals
11. Find the wrong Statement about human activities disturb ecosystem
a) Habitat destruction b) Deforestation and over grazing
c) Spiritual and religious values d) Erosion of soils
12. Find the wrong Staement about protect the ecosystem
a) Buy and use only ecofriendly products and recycle them. b) Over harvesting of plant material
c) Grow more trees d) Reduce the use of natural resources.
13. By 2025, at least 3.5 billion people, nearly ……... of the world’s population are projected to face water scarcity.
a) 20% b) 30% c) 40% d) 50%
14. Presently Adayar Poonga has 6 species of mangroves, about ……….. of littoral and tropical dry evergreen forests
(TDF) which have successfully established as a sustainable ecosystem
a) 358 b) 170 c) 58 d) 50
15. …… is decomposed rapidly than the cellulose
a) protein b) Lignin c) Chitin d) Hair
16. Find the correct steps of degradation process
a) A, Fragmentation, B, Catabolism, C, Leaching, D, Mineralisation, E, Humification
b) A, Fragmentation, B, Catabolism, C, Leaching, D, Humification, E, Mineralisation
c) A, Fragmentation, B, Leaching, C, Catabolism, D, Humification, E, Mineralisation
d) A,Catabolism, B, Fragmentation, C, Leaching, D, Humification, E, Mineralisation
17. The movement of decomposed, water soluble organic and inorganic compounds from the surface to the lower
layer of soil or the carrying away of the same by water is called ……………….
a) Fragmentation b) Catabolism c) Eluviation d) Mineralisation
18. Some microbes are involved in the release of inorganic nutrients from the humusof the soil, such process is called ……
a) Fragmentation b) Catabolism c) Eluviation d) Mineralisation
19. Example of Gaseous cycle
a) Carbon b) Phosphorus c) Sulphur d) Calcium
20. Example of Artifcial Ecosystem
a) Forest ecosystem b) Grass land ecosystem c) Desert ecosystem d) Rice field
21. Find the incorrect pair
a) Natural Ecosystem - Terrrestrial Ecosystem b) Aquatic Ecosystem - Marine ecosystem
c) Fresh water ecosystem - Lotic d) Marine ecosystem - Lentic
22. Find the Incorrect pair about pond ecosystem
a) Producers - Anabaena b) Primary consumer - Paramoecium
c) Secondary consumer - frog d) Decomposers - Volvox
23. Example of Producer in pond ecosystem
a) Azolla b) Duck c) man d) Bacteria
24. Example of Decomposer in pond ecosystem
a) Salvia b) Pistia c) Fungi d) Wolffia
25. The term ‘ecosystem’ was proposed by
a) Odum b) A.G.Tansley c) V. V. Dokuchaev d) G.F. Morozov
26. Find the Wrong pair
a) Biocoenosis – Karl Mobius b) Microcosm – S.A. Forbes
c) Holocoen - Vernadsky d) Biosystem – Thienemann
27. Autotrophs are organisms which can manufacture the organic compounds from simple inorganic a) components
through a process called ………...
.in
a) Respiration b) Photosynthesis c) Decomposition d) Biodegradation
28. Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) which is between the range of
al
a) 400-700 nm b) 500-800 nm c) 600-700 nm d) 400- 600 nm
ad
29. PAR values range ………………… during midday in the summer

a) 0- 3000 millimoles /square meter/second b) 2000 – 3000 millimoles /square meter/second
k
c) 1000 - 4000 millimoles /square meter/second d) 2000 - 4000 millimoles /square meter/second
vi
30. Example of Grey carbon

al
a) coal b) oil c) (i) & (ii) Correct d) None of the above

31. Find the Correct Pair
.k
a) Green carbon – carbon stored in the biosphere

w
b) Blue carbon – carbon emitted from gas, diesel engine and coal fired power plants
c) Brown carbon – carbon stored in the atmosphere and oceans
w
d) Black carbon – carbon stored in industrialized forests

w
32. NPP of whole biosphere is estimated to be about ……………..tons (dry weight) per year.
a) 150 billion b) 160 billion c) 170 billion d) 180 billion
33. Ten percent law was proposed by
a) Charles Elton b) Lindeman c) V. V. Dokuchaev d) G.F. Morozov
34. The concept of ecological pyramids was introduced by
a) Charles Elton b) Lindeman c) V. V. Dokuchaev d) G.F. Morozov
35. The pyramid of number in a parasite ecosystem is always
a) Upright b) Spindle shaped c) Inverted d) None of them
36. The pyramid of energy is always
a) Upright b) Spindle shaped c) Inverted d) None of them
Chapter 8 - Environmental Issues

1. Burning fossil fuels, which releases ..........
a) carbon monoxide b) methane c) Nitrous Oxide d) chlorofluorocarbon
2. Electrical gadgets like refrigerator and air conditioners release
3. The fertilizers used in Agriculture which release
4. Methane is .............. times as eff ective as carbondioxide attrapping heat in the atomosphere
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40
5. Find the wrong Staement

a) Increasing the vegetation cover, grow more trees b) Reducing the use of fossil fuels and green house gases
c) Developing alternate renewable sources of energy d) increasing uses of nitrogeneous fertilizers, and aerosols
6. Total ozonelayer over the earth surface is
a) 100 Du b) 200 Du c) 300 Du d) 400 Du
7. WORLD OZONE DAY is
a) 5 June b) 22 april c) 16 September d) 20 april
a) Lichens, Ficus, Pinus, - SO2 pollution b) Petunia, Chrysanthemum - Nitrate
c) Gladiolus - Flouride pollution d) Robinia pseudoacacia - ozone
9. Agricultural practices like stubble burningresult in emission of .................
a) Methane b) Carbon dioxide c) Carbon monoxide d) Nitrous oxide
10. Eichhornia crassipes is an invasiveweed native to
a) Africa b) Mexico c) South America d) China
11. Prosopis j uliflora is an invasive species nativeto
a) Africa b) Mexico c) China d) Russia
12 ...... poses a threat to human health because it creates a breeding habitat for disease causing mosquitoes Anopheles
a) Eichhornia crassipes b) Prosopis j uliflora c) Baccaurea courtallensis d) Hardwickia binata
13. ........................is used to arrest wind erosion and stabilize sand dunes on coastal and desert areas
a) Eichhornia crassipes b) Baccaurea courtallensis c) Hardwickia binata d) Prosopis j uliflora
a) Ex-situ ------- Sacred plants home gardens
b) Ex-situ -------Seed banks, Pollen banks, Field gene, Cryopreservation
c) Ex-situ -------Botanical gardens Arboreta, Zoological parks, Aquaria
d) Ex-situ -------Biosphere Reserves
.in
a) Government Protected --------- Biosphere Reserves
b) Government Protected --------- Sacred groves Sacred lakes
al
c) Government Protected --------- National parks
ad
d) Government Protected --------- Wildlife Sanctuaries

16. Chipko Movement by
k
a) Jadav b) Molai c) Sundarlal Bahuguna d) Payeng

vi
17. There are ................Megacentres of endemism and ................... microendemic centres in India
al
a) 3 and 21 b) 3 and 27 c) 2 and 27 d) 2 and 21

18. find the wrong pair
.k
a) Agasthiyamalaia pauciflora ---- Peninsular india b) Hardwickia binata ---- northern India
w
c) Nepenthes khasiyana ---- Khasi hills d) Bentinckia condappana ------ Meghalaya

19. Endemic centre of Baccaurea courtallensis
w
a) Peninsular india b) Southern Western Ghats c) northern India d) Khasi hills

w
20. As an example micro algae such as species of ........... is used globally for CO2 sequestration
a) Eugenia caryophyllata b) Tecomastans c) Chlamydomonas d) Cinnamomum verum
21. Trees like............. havehigh capacity and noted to sequester carbon
a) Scenedesmus b) Cinnamomum verum c) Chlorella d) Chroococcus
22. when used for 8 hours, it releases nearly................ kg. of CO2 annually
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
23. Which one is wrong practice for reducing carbon foot print
a) Eating indigenous fruits and products b) Reduce use of your electronic devices
c) Reduce travelling d) buy fast and preserved, processed, packed foods
24. Which one is wrong practice for reducing carbon foot print
a) Plant a garden b) Less consumption of meat and sea food
c) use Laptops d) Line dry your clothes
25. Example of artificial Carbon Sink
a) Landfills b) forest c) soil d) ocean
26. Which one is wrong statement about benefits of Rain Water Harvesting
a) Reduces soil erosion as surface run-off is reduced b) Reduces flood hazards
c) Improves groundwater quality d) Increases salinity
27. Find the wrong statement about he benefits of EIA to society
a) A healthier environment b) Maintenance of biodiversity
c) Increased resource usage d) Reduction in gas emission and environment damage
28. The Satellite 'SCATSAT – I' was Launched
a) September 2016 b) January 2018 c) March 2018 d) September 2018

a) INSAT 3DR ---------- Disaster management b) CA RTOSAT – 2 -------- Earth observation
c) GSAT – 6A --------- Communication d) SCATSAT – I --------- To watch border surveillance
30. Multipurpose tree varieties like .......... are used for wood pulp, tanning, paper and fire wood industries
a) Azadirachta indica b) Acacia c) Albizzia lebbek d) Gliricidia
31. Example of Protein Bank
a) Teak b) Eucalyptus c) Albizzia lebbek d) Erythrina
32. Example of Live fence
a) Teak b) Eucalyptus c) Albizzia lebbek d) Erythrina
33. The ............... Forestry extension centres provide technical support for tree growing in rural areas in Tamil Nadu
a) 30 b) 31 c) 32 d) 33
34. Find the wrong Statement about Major activities of forestry extension centres
a) Logging for timber b) Training on tree growing methods
c) Formation of demonstration plots d) Raising and supply of seedlings on subsidy
35. Find the Correct satement about causes of Deforestation
a) Raising bamboo plantations
b) Developmental activities like road construction, electric tower lines and dams
c) Regeneration of indigenous herbs / shrubs
d) To increase forest cover, planting more trees, increases O2 production and air quality
36. Find the Correct satement about Afforestation Objectives
a) The conversion of forests into agricultural plantation and livestock ranching is a maj or cause of deforestation
b) Over population, Industrialisation, urbanisation and increased global needs
c) Rehabilitation of degraded forests to increase carbon fixation and reducing CO2 from atmosphere
d) Logging for timber
37. Forest Man of India is
a) Bahuguna b) Sundarlal c) Jadav Payeng d) None of this above
.in
38. In ..............., Molai was honouredwith Padma Shri
a) 2013 b) 2014 c) 2015 d) 2016
al
ad
Chapter 9 - Plant Breeding

k
vi
1. Assertion: Genetic variation provides the raw material for selection

al
Reason: Genetic variations are differences in genotypes of the individuals

a) Assertion is right and reason is wrong. b) Assertion is wrong and reason is right.
.k
c) Both reason and assertion is right. d) Both reason and assertion is wrong.
w
2. While studying the history of domestication of various cultivated plants were recognized earlier Mark only one oval.
a) Centres of origin b) Centres of domestication c) Centres of hybrid d) Centres of variation
w
3. Pick out the odd pair.

w
a) Mass selection - Morphological characters b) Purline selection - Repeated self pollination

c) Clonal selection - Sexually propagated d) Natural selection - Involves nature
4. The quickest method of plant breeding is
a) Introduction b) Selection c) Hybridization d) Mutation breeding
5. Desired improved variety of economically useful crops are raised by
a) Natural Selection b) hybridization c) mutation d) biofertilisers
6. Plants having similar genotypes produced by plant breeding are called
a) clone b) haploid c) autopolyploid d) genome
7. Importing better varieties and plants from outside and acclimatising them to local environment is called
a) cloning b) heterosis c) selection d) introduction
8. Dwarfing gene of wheat is
a) pal 1 b) Atomita 1 c) Norin 10 d) pelita 2
9. Crosses between the plants of the same variety are called
a) interspecific b) inter varietal c) intra varietal d) inter generic
10. Progeny obtained as a result of repeat self pollination a cross pollinated crop to called
a) pure line b) pedigree line c) inbreed line d) heterosis
11. Jaya and Ratna are the semi dwarf varieties of
a) wheat b) rice c) cowpea d) mustard
12. Which one of the following are the species that are crossed to give sugarcane varieties with high sugar, high yield,
thick stems and ability to grow in the sugarcane belt of North India?
a) Saccharum barberi and Saccharum officinarum
b) Saccharum sinense and Saccharum officinarum
c) Saccharum barberi and Saccharum robustum
13. A wheat variety, Atlas 66 which has been used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat, which is rich in
a) iron b) carbohydrates c) proteins d) vitamins
14. Which one of the following crop varieties correct matches with its resistance to a disease?
a) Pusa Komal ------------- Bacterial blight b) Pusa Sadabahar------------- White rust
c) Pusa Shubhra ------------------Chilli mosaic virus d) Brassica ------------------------ Pusa swarnim
15. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
a) Wheat - Himgiri b) Milch breed - Sahiwal c) Rice - Ratna d) Pusa Komal - Brassica
16. Who is An eminent sugarcane breeder
a) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan b) Sir. T.S. Venkataraman c) Dr. B.P. Pal d) Dr. K. Ramiah
17. Choose the mis correct pair
a) Choudhary Ram Dhan - is famous for C-591variety of wheat
b) C.T. Patel – Who developed world’s first cotton hybrid
c) N.G.P. Rao – An eminent sorghum breeder,
d) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan – He developed superior disease resistant varieties of wheat
18. ..............................considered the original sources of most useful plants and their origin is an impenetrable secret
a) Zhukovsky b) Alexander Von Humboldt c) Nikolai Ivanovich d) Harlan
19. De Candolle in his “Origin of cultivated plants” studied ................................ cultivated plants pecies
a) 250 b) 251 c) 247 d) 245
20. Vavilov Later (1935) he named .................. centres of origin
a) 11 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12
21. Archeological evidence for earliest record of agriculture is found in the fertile crescent region in and around
Tigris and Euphrates river valleys, approximately about
a) 20,000 years ago b) 1200 years ago c) 12,000 years ago d) 11,200 years ago
22. Orgin of Barley
a) India b) China c) South America d) Ethiopia
.in
a) China - Rice, banana, coconut, clove , hemp. b) India - Rice, sugarcane, mango, orange, eggplant, sesame.
c) South America - Potato d) The Chiloe Centre - Tomato, pine-apple
al
24. Orgin of Groundnut
ad
a) South America b) The Brazilian c) India d) Mediterranean

25. Organic farming is production system that sustains the health of the.........................
k
a) Air b) Soils c) Water d) Oxygen

vi
26.Biofertilizers are efficient in fixing................... ,solubilising ......................... and decomposing .........................

al
a) 1, Nitrogen, 2, phosphate, 3, cellulose b) 1, phosphate, 2, cellulose, 3, Nitrogen

c) 1, cellulose, 2, Nitrogen, 3,phosphate d) 1, Nitrogen, 2, cellulose, 3,phosphate
.k
27. Find out Mis Mach Pair

w
a) N2 fixing free-living Biofertilize - Azotobacter b) P Mobilizing Biofertilizers - Scutellospora

c) Silicate and Zinc solubilizers - Bacillus d) N2 fixing Symbiotic Biofertilize - Pseudomonas fluorescence
w
28..........................is best suited for the paddy fields which increase the yield by 15 – 40%
w
a) Azotobacter b) Anabaena azollae c) Rhizobium d) Pseudomonas fluorescence

29. ..............................is a free-floating water fern that fixes the atmospheric nitrogen
a) Azotobacter b) azollae c) Kelp d) Azadirachta indica
30...................is formed by the symbiotic association between certain phycomycetous Fungi and angiosperm roots.
a) Anabaena b) Amanita c) Bacillus d) Arbuscular mycorrhizae
31. Assertion: Trichoderma have been recognized as bio-control agent, Reason: it's control of plant disease
a) Assertion is right and reason is wrong b) Assertion is wrong and reason is right
c) Both reason and assertion is right d) Both reason and assertion is wrong
32. kelp is a ...............................
a) Green Algae b) Brown Algae c) Red Algae d) Blue Green Algae
33. Beauveria species is an entomo-pathogenic .............
a) Bryophytes b) Fern c) Algae d) Fungus
34. Which purpose Tephrosia Purpurea is used
a) Bio-Pesticides b) Green Manuring c) Seaweed Liquid Fertilizer d) None of the above
35. Choose the wrong statement about Plant Breeding
a) To increase yield, vigour and fertility of the crop b) To prevent the premature falling of buds, fruits etc.
c) To improve synchronous maturity. d) To save ground water level
36. Rice variety of IR8 introduced from ..................
a) China b) America c) Philippines d) Mexico
37. Headquarters of National Bureau of plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) located at
a) Chennai b) Delhi c) Amristsar d) Kolkata
38............................coined the word pureline selection
a) Johannsen b) Darwin c) Vavilov d) Alexander Von Humboldt
39. Example of Interspecific hybridization ..........................

a) Raphanobrassica b) Triticale c) Gossypium hirsutum d) Pongamia pinnata
40. Which hybridization technique has been the basis of improving self- pollinated as well as cross pollinated crops
a) Intravarietal hybridization b) Intervarietal hybridization c) Interspecific hybridization d) Intergeneric hybridization
41. Which hybridization is commonly used for transferring the genes of disease, insect, pest and drought resistance
from one species to another.
a) Intravarietal hybridization b) Intervarietal hybridization c) nterspecific hybridization d) Intergeneric hybridization
42. The term heterosis is used by ..............................
a) Johannsen b) Stadler c) Muller d) G.H. Shull
43. Atomita 2 is a .......................
a) Wheat b) Rice c) Brinj al d) Potato
44. Majority of flowering plants are ............................................
a) Polyploidy b) triploid c) diploid d) Allopolyploidy
45. “Father of green revolutionin India”. is
a) Dr.B.P Pal b) Nel Jayaraman c) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan d) Sir. T.S. Venkataraman
46. He was awarded a National Award for 'best Genome Savior' 2015
a) M. S. Swaminathan b) Sir. T.S. Venkataraman c) Nel Jayaraman d) Dr.B.P Pal
Chapter 10 - Economically Useful Plants and Entrepreneurial Botany
1. Consider the following statements and choose the right option. i) Cereals are members of grass family. ii) Most of
the food grains come from monocotyledon.
a) (i) is correct and (ii) is wrong b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
c) (i) is wrong and (ii) is correct d) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
.in
2. Assertion: Vegetables are important part of healthy eating.Reason: Vegetables are succulent structures of plants
with pleasant aroma and flavours.
al
a) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong
b) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct
ad
c) Both are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion.
d) Both are correct and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
k
3. Groundnut is native of _____________

vi
a) Philippines b) India c) North America d) Brazil

al
4. Statement A: Coffee contains caffeine Statement B: Drinking coffee enhances cancer

a) A is correct, B is wrong b) A and B – Both are correct
.k
c) A is wrong, B is correct d) A and B – Both are wrong

w
5. Tectona grandis is coming under family

w
a) Lamiaceae b) Fabaceae c) Dipterocaipaceae d) Ebenaceae

6. Tamarindus indica is indigenous to
w
a) Tropical African region b) South India, Sri Lanka c) South America, Greece d) India alone
7. New world species of cotton
a) Gossipium arboretum b) G.herbaceum c) Both a and b d) G.barbadense
8. Assertion: Turmeric fights various kinds of cancer Reason: Curcumin is an anti-oxidant present in turmeric
a) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong b) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct
c) Both are correct d) Both are wrong
9. Find out the correctly matched pair.
a) Rubber --------- Shorea robusta b) Dye ------------- Indigofera annecta
c) Timber ------------ Cyperus papyrus d) Pulp ------------- Hevea brasiliensis
10. Observe the following statements and pick out the right option from the following:Statement I – Perfumes are
manufactured from essential oils.Statement II – Essential oils are formed at different parts of the plants.
a) Statement I is correct b) Statement II is correct
c) Both statements are correct d) Both statements are wrong
11. Observe the following statements and pick out the right option from the following: Statement I: The drug
sources of Siddha include plants, animal parts, ores and minerals. Statement II: Minerals are used for preparing
drugs with long shelf-life.
a) Statement I is correct b) Statement II is correct
c) Both statements are correct d) Both statements are wrong
12. The active principle trans-tetra hydro canabial is present in
a) Opium b) Curcuma c) Marij uana d) Andrographis
13. Which one of the following matches is correct?
a) Palmyra - Native of Brazil b) Saccharun - Abundant in Kanyakumari
c) Steveocide - Natural sweetener d) Palmyra sap - Fermented to give ethanol
14. The only cereal that has originated and domesticated from the New world.
a) Oryza sativa b)Triticum asetumn c) Triticum duram d) Zea mays
15. All the cereals are members of family______
a) Musaceae. b) poaceae. c) lamiaceae. d) verbenaceae.
16. ___________is an example of a pseudocereal
a) Quinao. b) Cinchona. c) Rauwolfia. d) Litt le Millet.
17. Choose the incorrect statement about "wheat"
a) wheat is most ly cultivated in the South India.
b) wheat flour is suitable to make bread.
c) Processed wheat flour is called maida.
d) Malted wheat is a maj or maj or raw material for producing alcoholic beverages.
18. choose the correct pair
a) Red gram_____ Pigeon pea. b) Black gram_____Chick pea.
c) Vingna mungo___ Bengal gram. d) Green gram_____Caj anus caj an.
19. Finger millet (Ragi) is rich in_______
a) phosphorus b) potassium c) calcium d) sodium.
20. ________is used in manufacture of infant foods.
a) rice bran oil b) quinoa c) pear milet d) corn syrup.
21. Pulses belong to family_______.
a) Poaceae. b) Verbenaceae. c) Fabaceae. d) Amaranthaceae.
22. sorghum is native to_______.
a) America. b) Brazil. c) India. d) Africa.
23. _______is a semi aquatic crop
a) paddy b) wheat c) Sorghum d) Black gram.
24. Consider the following statements and choose the right options.i)Cereals are members of grass family.ii)Most of
the food grains come from monocotyledon.
.in
a) (i) is correct and (ii) is wrong. b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
c) (i)is wrong and (ii) is correct d) Both(i) and (ii)are wrong.
al
25. Beta-carotene found rich in________?
ad
a) Rice b) Green gram c) Mango. d) cashew nut.

26. choose the wrong pair:
k
a) Sesamum indicum.______ Pedaliaceae b) Groundnut_____ Mexico.

vi
c) Arachis hypogaea_____ Riboflavin d) Sesame oil_____ Paint industry.

al
27. Assertion: A)Tea and coffee non-alcoholic beverages stimulate the central nervous system ..Reason:R)All non-
alcoholic beverages stimulate the central nervous system as they contain alkaloid...
.k
w
w

w
28. Choose the correct answers:

a) Baba budan____Cardiments b) Mangifera Indica____ Poaceae
c) Cirrhosis____ Fatty liver diseases. d) Sugarcane____State tree of Tamil Nadu.
29. Sugarcane currently cultivated is a wild variety of New Guinea ______
a) Saccharum spontaneum. b) Saccharum officinarum.
c) Saccharum robustum. d) Saccharum barberi.
30. Caffeine enhances release of____ in brain.
a) niacin b) morphing c) thiamine d) acetylcholine
31. Which of the following accessory food is that search for sea route of India.?
a) Turmeric b) cardamom c) Pepper d) Chillies
32. which one is called as queen of spices.___
a) Elettaria cardamomum b) Piper nigrum c) Capsicum annuum. d) Jasminum grandiflorum.
33. African origin of Corchorus species is ___
a) corchorus capsularis. b) corchorus olitorius. c) corchorus tridens. d) corchorus aestuans.
34. Pick out the wrong pair:
a) Cyperus papyrus____ Egyptians. b) Paper mulberry____Chinese.
c) Indigo_____colourings on mummy d) Rayon____Charles Goodyear.
35. Which of the following is used to for colouring the tails of horses.___
a) Lacosone b) Aloin c) Fumus d) Jasmine..
36. Assertion:(A) Aloe vera gel is used as good skin tonic..Reason: (R) Because it has emollient , antibacterial
,antioxidant ,antifungal and antiseptic characters..
a) Assertion is true; Reason is false.
b) Both Assertion and Reason or false
c) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is correct explain of assertion.
d) Both Assertion and Reason for true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
37. Pick out the quantity of essential oil extracted from one ton of jasmine blossom___.
a)0.25 to 3%. B) 2.5 to 8 kg c) 2.5 to 4kg d) 2.5 to 3 kg
38. find out the correctly matched pair:
a) Rubber____Shorea robusta b) Dye___ Lawsonia inermis
c) Timber___Cyperus papyrus d) Pulp____ Hevea brasiliensis.
39. Siddha systems based on texts written by following Siddhars?
a) 28 b) 8 c) 18 d) 38
40. The ayurvedic pharmacopoeia of India lists about following source of drugs plants?
a) 100 b) 500 c) 250 d) 300
41. choose the wrong pair.
A) All India coordinated research proj ect ___ i)Ministry of environment and forests
B) Charaka ,Sushruta ,Vagbhata___ ii)Compendium.
C) Siddha system____ iii)Pancabuta.
D) Folk system____ iv)Brahma
42. Andrographis paniculata belongs to which family?
a) Vitaceae b) Acanthaceae c) Lamiaceae d) Phyanthaceae.
43. Medical significances of Nilavembu is__.
a) Liver disordersand Chikungunya. b) Liver disorders and Flu fever.
c) Liver disorders and Malaria. d) Malaria and Lungs disorders.
44. The extract of phyllanthus amarus is effective against hepatitis B virus that research carried out by __.
.in
a) S.P. Muthuraj an and team. b) S.P. Raj a Raman and team.
c) S.P .Thiagaraj an and team. d) S.P .Lakshman and team.
al
45. Opium is derived from the exudates of ___ of poppy plants.
ad
a) Leaf tip. b) shoot latex. c) Fruit d) Flower bud.

46. which of the following plants is used to prepare organic pesticides?
k
a) Acalypha. b) Ocimum. c) Vilvam. d) Neem.

vi
47. Assertion (A): The active principles in Marij uana is trans tetrahydrocanabinal .its possess a number of
al
medicinal properties. Reasons ( R): Because of this medicinal properties. cultivation of cannabis is legalised
in some countries.
.k
a) Assertion is true; Reason is false.

w
b) Both Assertion and Reason or false

c) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is correct explain of assertion.
w
d) Both Assertion and Reason for true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
w

12th Bio - Botany One Word EM 2023

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

12th Bio - Botany One Word EM 2023

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

https://www.kalvikadal.in https://material.kalvikadal.

One Mark Question and Answer

Chapter 1- Asexual and Sexual Reproduction in Plants

a) Porogamy b) Chalazogamy c) Mesogamy d) Micropyle

a) Pyrus malus b) Physalis minima c) Lilium d) Solanum melogena

11. After fertilization the perisperm develops from______

12. Identify the endosperm seed .________.

a) Bean b) Mango c) Cucurbits d) Wheat

a) 60kg b) 6kg c) 600kg d) 0.6kg.

14. which of the following secretes amylase during germination?...

a) sphaerosome b) Aleurosome c) Chromosome d) Ribosome.

23. Epiphyllous buds are in_______

c) both A and R are true d) both A and R are false

a)Stigma b)Style c) Ovary d)All the above.

37. The ovules or megasporangia arise from____

a) Funicle b) Nucellus c) Hilum d) The placenta.

a) Endothelium b) Nucellus c) Megasporangium d) Microsporangium

a) Gametogenesis b) Megasporogenesis c) Microsporogenesis d) Sporogenesis

51. some plans of ok pollinated by snails_____

Chapter 2 - Classical Genetics

c) The first systematic researcher in Genetics___ Mendel.

a) seven b) six c) Four d) Five

a) Law of dominance b) Law of independent assortment

c) Law of segregation d) Law of random fertilization.

a) Gene R b) Pigment A c) Gene A d) Gene C

10. Pick out the the wrong pair

27. Pick out the correct one .

b) Inter locus interaction __ allelic interaction.

d) Trihybrid cross demonstrates__ law of dominance and law of recessiveness.

a) Mendal. b) punnet. c) Bateson d) Deveries.

29. Alleles themselves remind discrete and an altered is explained by

30. Name of the scientist who reported lethal gene in Snapdragon

a) E.Baur b) Correns c) punnet d) Arya

39. In each crossof the F1 plant reveals the character of.

Chapter 3 - Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance

1. The term mutation was introduced by

3. Chemical mutagenesis was first reported by

a) Muller b) Hugo de Vries c) C. Auerback d) L J Stadler

a) Castor Aruna b) Sharbati Sonora c) Triticum durum d) Secale cereale

6. The maturity period of Castor Aruna is

7. Find the wrong pair

a) Trisomy - (2n+1) b) Tetrasomy - (2n+2) c) Pentasomy - (2n+3) d) Double Tetrasomy (2n+1+1)

8. Find the wrong pair

16. Synaptonemal complex formation is absent in___

d) Both Asseration and Reason or false

a) 10 and 7 b) 10.and 2 c) 2 and10 d) 2 and 7

27. Complete linkage has been reported in

a) Female drosophila b) Male drosophila c) Male Maize d) Female maize

a) Couplings _ Trans configuration. b) Repulsion. _ Cis-configuration.

a) Linkage and repulsion. b) Linkage and crossing over.

c) Crossing over and coupling. d) Coupling and linkage.

38. The number of chromosomes is diploid cells of drosophila is

Chapter 4 - Principles and Processes of Biotechnology

a) Bioventing b) Bioleaching c) Bioaugmentation d) Composting

15............................. is the addition of selected microbes to speed up degradation process

a) Bioventing b) Bioleaching c) Bioaugmentation d) Composting

a) Bioventing b) Bioleaching c) Bioaugmentation d) Composting

18.................................. normally used to produce algal biofuel

29. Find the wrong statement about Disadvantages of Bt cotton

33. In Northern blotting techniques used for Separation of ................

42. Find the wrong Pair

b) Microinj ection - fine tipped glass needle